Q1: Many theorists, according to Culler, believe that all aesthetic objects (such as literature) must have a "purposiveness without purpose" (33). How do you understand this term, and how might it distinguish literature from, say, an instruction manual or a political manifesto?
Q2: Culler writes that "what it implicitly says about making sense relates to the way it itself goes about making sense" (34). How does this relate to intertextuality and the idea of all art being a copy of a copy of a copy?
Q3: Culler suggests that "the more the universality of literature is stressed, the more it may have a national function" (37). Based on this, how might literature have created a sense of Englishness or even Americanness? (he hints at Jane Austen in the chapter, who we'll be reading before long!).
Q4: Do you think literature have the power to ennoble us and make us
better human beings? Is that an outdated (or naive) notion, or is it one of the
chief qualities of literature? Is literature inherently 'moral'? Or is that a quality of theory (making us see morality in an otherwise valueless text)?
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